A typical measure for firms’ use of earnings management in the finance literature is based on the absolute value of the residual (|e|) of a OLS regression estimated separately for firms in each industry/year-group.
However, literature uses two versions of this model:
without intercept: Accruals(t)/TotalAssets(t-1) = b1 * 1/TotalAssets(t-1) + b2 * ChangeInSales/TotalAssets(t-1)+ b3 * FixedAssets/TotalAssets(t-1) + e
or with intercept (b0): Accruals(t)/TotalAssets(t-1) = b0 + b1 * 1/TotalAssets(t-1) + b2 * ChangeInSales/TotalAssets(t-1)+ b3 * FixedAssets/TotalAssets(t-1) + e
My question(s) - how does the exclusion/inclusion of the intercept affect the measure |e|? And more specifically, how does the inclusion/exclusion affect a comparison of the measure |e| across industry/year-groups (e.g. comparison of the mean of |e| between Industry1 in 1997 and 1998)?
However, literature uses two versions of this model:
without intercept: Accruals(t)/TotalAssets(t-1) = b1 * 1/TotalAssets(t-1) + b2 * ChangeInSales/TotalAssets(t-1)+ b3 * FixedAssets/TotalAssets(t-1) + e
or with intercept (b0): Accruals(t)/TotalAssets(t-1) = b0 + b1 * 1/TotalAssets(t-1) + b2 * ChangeInSales/TotalAssets(t-1)+ b3 * FixedAssets/TotalAssets(t-1) + e
My question(s) - how does the exclusion/inclusion of the intercept affect the measure |e|? And more specifically, how does the inclusion/exclusion affect a comparison of the measure |e| across industry/year-groups (e.g. comparison of the mean of |e| between Industry1 in 1997 and 1998)?
Comment