hi guys!
one other question. when one computes the marginal effect of a continous variable one of the outcomes of a mlogit (margins, dydx (age) predict (outcome(1)) does the interpretation still account for the reference category?
say the value is 0.025
is the intepretation: one additional year = a 2.5 percentage points higher probability of outcome 1 or one additional year = a 2.5 percentage points higher probability of outcome 1 and not outcome 0 (which was the reference in the model).
if the latter is correct, then does it makes sense to compute the marginal effect for outcome 0? if so, what would then be the reference for it?
i'm inclined to believe the first interpretation is correct and not the latter.
thanks
one other question. when one computes the marginal effect of a continous variable one of the outcomes of a mlogit (margins, dydx (age) predict (outcome(1)) does the interpretation still account for the reference category?
say the value is 0.025
is the intepretation: one additional year = a 2.5 percentage points higher probability of outcome 1 or one additional year = a 2.5 percentage points higher probability of outcome 1 and not outcome 0 (which was the reference in the model).
if the latter is correct, then does it makes sense to compute the marginal effect for outcome 0? if so, what would then be the reference for it?
i'm inclined to believe the first interpretation is correct and not the latter.
thanks
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