I am trying to run a model to estimate how well catastrophic illnesses such as TB, AIDS etc affect spending on hospitalization. Now I have per hospitalization cost as the dependent variavle and various individual markers as independent variables, almost all of which are dummy such as gender, head of household status, poverty status and ofcourse a dummy for whether you have the illness.
As is to be expected, there is a significant- and I mean a lot, of pile up at zero- no expenditure on hosptalization in the 12 month reference period. What would be the best way to deal with a model such as this.
As of now I decided to convert the cost into ln(1+cost) so as to include all observations and then run a GLM model.
Am I on the right track?
Also posted on http://stats.stackexchange.com/quest...led-up-at-zero
As is to be expected, there is a significant- and I mean a lot, of pile up at zero- no expenditure on hosptalization in the 12 month reference period. What would be the best way to deal with a model such as this.
As of now I decided to convert the cost into ln(1+cost) so as to include all observations and then run a GLM model.
Am I on the right track?
Also posted on http://stats.stackexchange.com/quest...led-up-at-zero
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