Hello everyone
In my recent study, I wanna estimate using Gologit as my dependent var is in categorical (Keluhan Kesehatan/Health Complaints (Y) 1 (lowest) and 4 (highest or complaining about health, illness, interference with work, to outpatient care)). I choose Gologit as my model doesnt fit the parallel trend assumption for the usual ordered logit. I have an independent var of Car Ownership (binary, 1 refer to owned car, and 0 otherwise). These are the details:
I have some control variables: married (0 1), female (0 1), educ (0 1(JHS) 2(SHS) 3(Bachelor dst)), working (0 1), AgeCat (0 1(<15) 2 (15-65) 3(>65)), Urban (0 1) toilet (0 1), Water Source condition (0 1 good quality), smoking (0 1), commuting frequency (0 1 (2-10) 2(>10)), working hour (0 1 (21-40) 2(41-60) 3(>60)), health insurance (0 1), social insurance (0 1), water deprivation (0 1), food deprivation (0 1) ==> All recorded as 1 for the name of the variables (ex: Female=1=Female, Female=0=Male)
I'm still struggling on understanding how to interpret my gologit result. As we know, gologit will have J-1 groups, so for my result I have 3 groups with the result details below: (KeluhanKesehatan means HealthComplaints)

1. How should I interpret for each groups? What does (1 vs 2,3,4) for group 1, (1,2 vs 3,4) for group 2, and (1,2,3 vs 4) for group 3 actually means?
2. Base of Richard Williams handout about gologit, the interpretation for negative and positive are like this:
For my result, does this interpretation correct?
3. It is much easier when the result for all of each groups have the same sign (whether it is negative or positive), but I found it difficult to interpret when there is a different sign for one of the group, like this one, as group 3 is the only one who has negative sign:

How we should interpret for this case?
I really apreciate if anyone can help me to understand this 🤗
Thank you, have a nice day!
In my recent study, I wanna estimate using Gologit as my dependent var is in categorical (Keluhan Kesehatan/Health Complaints (Y) 1 (lowest) and 4 (highest or complaining about health, illness, interference with work, to outpatient care)). I choose Gologit as my model doesnt fit the parallel trend assumption for the usual ordered logit. I have an independent var of Car Ownership (binary, 1 refer to owned car, and 0 otherwise). These are the details:
Code:
dependent var (Y) : HealthComplaints Category Y = 1 if the respondent has not experienced any health complaints during the past month (No complaints) Category Y = 2 if the respondent has experienced health complaints during the past month, but they have not interfered with work, school, or daily activities (Mild) Category Y = 3 if the respondent has experienced health complaints during the past month that have interfered with work, school, or daily activities, but have not sought outpatient treatment (Moderate) Category Y = 4 if the respondent has experienced health complaints that have interfered with daily activities during the past month (Severe) Independent var (X): CarOwnership CarOwnership = 1 = Owning car CarOwnership = 0 = Didnt own car
I'm still struggling on understanding how to interpret my gologit result. As we know, gologit will have J-1 groups, so for my result I have 3 groups with the result details below: (KeluhanKesehatan means HealthComplaints)
1. How should I interpret for each groups? What does (1 vs 2,3,4) for group 1, (1,2 vs 3,4) for group 2, and (1,2,3 vs 4) for group 3 actually means?
2. Base of Richard Williams handout about gologit, the interpretation for negative and positive are like this:
(Positive result) Higher likelihood of being in a higher category of Y than the current one as the explanatory variable (X) increase, and (Negative result) Higher likelihood of being in a lower category of Y than the current one as the explanatory variable (X) increase
a. (Car Ownership) Car owners have a higher probability of complaining of minor health problems compared to non-car owners (as the sign are all negative for 3 groups)
b. (Marital Status) A married individu have a higher probability of complaining severe health problems compared to single individu (as the sign are all positive for 3 groups)
b. (Marital Status) A married individu have a higher probability of complaining severe health problems compared to single individu (as the sign are all positive for 3 groups)
How we should interpret for this case?
I really apreciate if anyone can help me to understand this 🤗
Thank you, have a nice day!

Comment