I estimated an multilevel ordinal model and calculated the APRs (Adjusted predictions at representative values) for male and female separately. Surprisingly, the resulting margins are exactly the same for both sexes. This seems odd to me since the main effect of sex is highly significant and the strongest effect in my results.
To give you an idea about the (theoretical) model:
My DV is fear of crime and has for categories (0-3) and the IV of interest is standardized and therefore continuous. I calculated the margins for the last two outcomes (2 and 3) with the following command (the code was a bit longer since I saved the model and resulting graphs, but to keep it more simple I only show you the important code):
One of the resulting graphs (outcome 2) looks like this.

It seems somewhat unlikely to me that the margins for male and female are exactly the same?
What do you think?
To give you an idea about the (theoretical) model:
My DV is fear of crime and has for categories (0-3) and the IV of interest is standardized and therefore continuous. I calculated the margins for the last two outcomes (2 and 3) with the following command (the code was a bit longer since I saved the model and resulting graphs, but to keep it more simple I only show you the important code):
- armut=poverty on level 2
- sex=gender
Code:
forvalues i=2/3 { marginscontplot armut sex, at1(-2(0.25)2) /// margopts(predict(outcome(`i')fixedonly) }
It seems somewhat unlikely to me that the margins for male and female are exactly the same?
What do you think?
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