Hello,
I am currently estimating panel models using an unbalanced panel dataset for 65 years and above. It consists of 15 European countries observed across multiple waves (roughly every 2-3 years). There are in total 7 waves from 2004 to 2020. I have used robust standard errors that are clustered at the individual level. I have controlled for wave effects (i.wave) to capture time specific effects.
The dependent variable is a count variable measured over the previous 12 months. The main variables morbidity level and depression are significant, but age is not. I ran the regression without i.wave and voila, age became significant and positive (1.020 increase in doctor visits with one year increase in age, c.p).
I also ran a RE model, but with i.wave and i.country both and age is here significant and positive.
My question being, is this expected in such cases? Should I then keep the wave effects in the FE model? Hausman Test prefers FE. How should I interpret and present this finding?
Thank you in advance.
I am currently estimating panel models using an unbalanced panel dataset for 65 years and above. It consists of 15 European countries observed across multiple waves (roughly every 2-3 years). There are in total 7 waves from 2004 to 2020. I have used robust standard errors that are clustered at the individual level. I have controlled for wave effects (i.wave) to capture time specific effects.
Code:
xtpoisson doctor_visits c.age i.gender i.education i.income i.livingalone i.morbidity i.depressed i.smoking i.wave, fe irr vce(robust)
I also ran a RE model, but with i.wave and i.country both and age is here significant and positive.
My question being, is this expected in such cases? Should I then keep the wave effects in the FE model? Hausman Test prefers FE. How should I interpret and present this finding?
Thank you in advance.

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