Dear all,
I hope you can help me with this.
To analyse the association between a three-category outcome with no natural ordering and a binary exposure, I used multinomial logistic regression. I have been advised to present the results, relative risk ratios, as there is an equivalence between relative risk ratios and conditional odds ratios for audience more familiar with odds than risk. I was referred to a Stata Technical Bulletin (stb53.dvi) detailing this equivalence.
I have only used conditional logistic regression for analysing matched case-control studies, and I understand it is also used for repeated measures. However, neither of these scenarios apply to my research/dataset - each case has only one observation, there's no matching/group variable, and the outcome has multiple categories.
Given this, is the equivalence between RRR and COR only valid in the context of matched case-control studies and repeated measures, or does it extend beyond these study designs?
Many thanks for your help,
Darina
I hope you can help me with this.
To analyse the association between a three-category outcome with no natural ordering and a binary exposure, I used multinomial logistic regression. I have been advised to present the results, relative risk ratios, as there is an equivalence between relative risk ratios and conditional odds ratios for audience more familiar with odds than risk. I was referred to a Stata Technical Bulletin (stb53.dvi) detailing this equivalence.
I have only used conditional logistic regression for analysing matched case-control studies, and I understand it is also used for repeated measures. However, neither of these scenarios apply to my research/dataset - each case has only one observation, there's no matching/group variable, and the outcome has multiple categories.
Given this, is the equivalence between RRR and COR only valid in the context of matched case-control studies and repeated measures, or does it extend beyond these study designs?
Many thanks for your help,
Darina
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