Hello,
I run heterogeneity analysis by interacting my variable of interest which is continuous with an indicator for gender.
The problem is that my variable of interest is also endogenuous so I use an IV in the following way.
I got the follwoing result
What is bothering me is that I used only one # in this model.
How do I interpret these result please??
Also, ivreg2 does not allow for ##, so I used the following:
Is this correct? and which model is better suited in my case for my heterogenity analysis?
Result with the second model:
Thank you so much!
I run heterogeneity analysis by interacting my variable of interest which is continuous with an indicator for gender.
The problem is that my variable of interest is also endogenuous so I use an IV in the following way.
Code:
ivreg2 Y (c.X#i.male = c.IV#i.male) controls
I got the follwoing result
Code:
male#c.X| 0 | .0078223 .00254 3.08 0.002 .0028439 .0128007 1 | .0102124 .003351 3.05 0.002 .0036446 .0167802
What is bothering me is that I used only one # in this model.
How do I interpret these result please??
Also, ivreg2 does not allow for ##, so I used the following:
Code:
ivreg2 Y (X c.X#i.male = IV c.IV#i.male) controls
Result with the second model:
Code:
X| .0078223 .00254 3.08 0.002 .0028439 .0128007 | male#c.X| 1 | .00239 .0031224 0.77 0.444 -.0037298 .0085099
Comment