Hi everyone,
I am currently conducting a research study investigating the impact of leverage (debt-to-asset ratio) on the financial performance (return on equity) of listed corporations. To achieve this objective, I have collected panel data from the annual reports of 20 companies over the past five years.
After conducting a panel regression analysis, I decided to use the fixed-effects model based on the results of the Hausman test. However, further diagnostic tests revealed several issues with my data:
1. Which estimator (xtgls or xtpcse) is more suitable for my analysis to ensure accurate estimation of the relationship between leverage and financial performance?
2. Are there alternative approaches that might be more appropriate for my dataset?
Your advice and expertise would mean a lot as I navigate this step in my analysis! Thank you in advance for your help.
I am currently conducting a research study investigating the impact of leverage (debt-to-asset ratio) on the financial performance (return on equity) of listed corporations. To achieve this objective, I have collected panel data from the annual reports of 20 companies over the past five years.
After conducting a panel regression analysis, I decided to use the fixed-effects model based on the results of the Hausman test. However, further diagnostic tests revealed several issues with my data:
- Wooldridge test: Detected autocorrelation.
- Wald test: Identified heteroskedasticity.
- Pesaran test: Indicated cross-sectional dependence.
1. Which estimator (xtgls or xtpcse) is more suitable for my analysis to ensure accurate estimation of the relationship between leverage and financial performance?
2. Are there alternative approaches that might be more appropriate for my dataset?
Your advice and expertise would mean a lot as I navigate this step in my analysis! Thank you in advance for your help.

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