Dear All:
I am coming up with a conceptual doubt regarding a measure of food deprivation across male and female in the same household. I have frequency of food intake (say regular and irregular) for both male and female. I have constructed a nutrition index for both the groups that ranges from 0 to 1 where higher values indicate better nutrition. Now I intend to see the gap between male and female in the same household. The gap index that I have in mind is (male nutrition_index -female nutrition_index)/male nutrition_index. Is this a statistically valid measure of gap ?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
I am coming up with a conceptual doubt regarding a measure of food deprivation across male and female in the same household. I have frequency of food intake (say regular and irregular) for both male and female. I have constructed a nutrition index for both the groups that ranges from 0 to 1 where higher values indicate better nutrition. Now I intend to see the gap between male and female in the same household. The gap index that I have in mind is (male nutrition_index -female nutrition_index)/male nutrition_index. Is this a statistically valid measure of gap ?
Any help would be greatly appreciated.

Comment