Dear All,
I have been using a time-invariant instrumental variable with fixed effects in my article. A reviewer has asked me to try the first difference approach to make sure my results hold. However, as my instrumental variable is time-invariant I am not sure how I can use that with a first difference estimation. I asked ChatGPT and it suggested this approach:
"Using Original Instrument in FD-IV Framework: If you prefer to use the FD model, but you have a time-invariant instrument, you can implement a two-stage least squares (2SLS) approach within the differenced data framework: First Stage: Regress the endogenous variable on the instrument in levels, as the instrument itself does not vary over time. Second Stage: Use the fitted values from the first stage in the differenced outcome equation."
Is this approach correct? If so, could you please refer me to an actual reference that endorses this approach?
I have been using a time-invariant instrumental variable with fixed effects in my article. A reviewer has asked me to try the first difference approach to make sure my results hold. However, as my instrumental variable is time-invariant I am not sure how I can use that with a first difference estimation. I asked ChatGPT and it suggested this approach:
"Using Original Instrument in FD-IV Framework: If you prefer to use the FD model, but you have a time-invariant instrument, you can implement a two-stage least squares (2SLS) approach within the differenced data framework: First Stage: Regress the endogenous variable on the instrument in levels, as the instrument itself does not vary over time. Second Stage: Use the fitted values from the first stage in the differenced outcome equation."
Is this approach correct? If so, could you please refer me to an actual reference that endorses this approach?

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