Hello, I am a novice at econometrics.
I have a pooled coss-sectional data (t, t+1).
The problem is that t does not have DV since DV is about the after-time t. Luckily, t and t+1 both have the same covariates and IVs.
Can I use propensity score matching for IV (IV will be the outcome variable, and year will be the treatment) and then only regress matched cases in t+1 ?
Could it be problematic? I thought it would be ok, but I never found any related literature.
Your help would be much appreciated.
I have a pooled coss-sectional data (t, t+1).
The problem is that t does not have DV since DV is about the after-time t. Luckily, t and t+1 both have the same covariates and IVs.
Can I use propensity score matching for IV (IV will be the outcome variable, and year will be the treatment) and then only regress matched cases in t+1 ?
Could it be problematic? I thought it would be ok, but I never found any related literature.
Your help would be much appreciated.
