Hi there,
in regressions on different topics and in different setups I have encountered cases where each observation's market share had a positive effect on the outcome whereas a higher Herfindahl Hirschmann Index, i.e. a higher sum of squared market shares in that same market, had a negative one.
Note that in the regressions with market shares I did not control for market-wide HHI, nor did I control for the observation's own market share when analyzing the effect of HHI.
I am struggling to understand how this is possible. Can anyone see it?
Thanks so much,
PM
in regressions on different topics and in different setups I have encountered cases where each observation's market share had a positive effect on the outcome whereas a higher Herfindahl Hirschmann Index, i.e. a higher sum of squared market shares in that same market, had a negative one.
Note that in the regressions with market shares I did not control for market-wide HHI, nor did I control for the observation's own market share when analyzing the effect of HHI.
I am struggling to understand how this is possible. Can anyone see it?
Thanks so much,
PM
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