Dear community,
I have a balanced panel data with 4 periods of observations in which I include the following variables:
Dependent variable: col
Explanatory variables: apro, apro_sq(squared term of approp)
Control variables: year, Industry, size, rd_inv , market_size
As I want to control for possible endogeneity in my model (previous values of the dependent variable may influence future values of it) I was recommended to use correlated random. Also, CRE allows to include time-invariant terms in the regression.
When the model includes endogenous explanatory variables, (Papke and Woolbridge, 2008) recommend to use a two step approach:
I have a balanced panel data with 4 periods of observations in which I include the following variables:
Dependent variable: col
Explanatory variables: apro, apro_sq(squared term of approp)
Control variables: year, Industry, size, rd_inv , market_size
As I want to control for possible endogeneity in my model (previous values of the dependent variable may influence future values of it) I was recommended to use correlated random. Also, CRE allows to include time-invariant terms in the regression.
When the model includes endogenous explanatory variables, (Papke and Woolbridge, 2008) recommend to use a two step approach:
- Estimate the reduced form for yit2, in case of “apro” to obtain the residual vit
- Use the pooled “probit” QMLE to obtain the estimates of the model.
- If I want to use the regions of the firm as an instrumental variable (location), how can I test that this variable satisfies the condition of be strictly exogenous variable?
- Concerning the control variables, can I include control variables that are time variant? Do the control variables included in the model should also satisfy the condition of being strictly exogenous?
- In my model I want to test for the possible quadratic effect of the explanatory variable. How can I test it using the two step approach suggested by Papke and Woolbridge (2008)?
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