Dear all,
First, my data:
I have read multiple very relevant posts on this forum about the dangers of standard regressors when one has panel data, and the problems associated with it.
Do these problems also apply to de-meaning? As in which mean to remove, the time mean, between mean or overall mean?
My issue is the following: I would like to run something like
I am mainly interested in the interaction term, however I need to interpret the "baseline" effects of X1 and X2 as well. If I were to de-mean the data and this were cross-sectional data, the coefficient on X1 (X2) would be its impact on Y when X1 (X2) is set to its mean.
The classical interpretation is the impact of e.g. X1 on Y when X2 is set to 0, correct? The problem is, in this configuration, 0 would be a completely unrealistic value for X1 and X2...
Does anyone have any recommendations to aid the interpretation of baseline effects in panel data with continuous regressors and an interaction?
Many thanks in advance!
First, my data:
Code:
input float(id month Y X1 X2) 11630 740 0 2.061 2300 2982 735 5 2.551 2431.6 19647 736 0 2.394 9696.042 15889 732 4 2.763 2137.8435 10636 726 0 2.333 5437.80 1281 739 3 2.134 2137.8435 1312 737 0 2.28 4312.76 3847 736 1 2.394 2137.8435 15278 740 0 2.061 2408.54 7169 726 2 2.333 10060.36 19022 727 0 2.394 3876.9887 877 734 1 2.612 2137.8435 1164 746 0 1.838 2233.5 19611 740 0 2.061 2137.8435 1790 723 0 2.175 9696.043
Do these problems also apply to de-meaning? As in which mean to remove, the time mean, between mean or overall mean?
My issue is the following: I would like to run something like
Code:
reg Y X1 X2 X1*X2 +FE + error
The classical interpretation is the impact of e.g. X1 on Y when X2 is set to 0, correct? The problem is, in this configuration, 0 would be a completely unrealistic value for X1 and X2...
Does anyone have any recommendations to aid the interpretation of baseline effects in panel data with continuous regressors and an interaction?
Many thanks in advance!
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