Hi,
I have ran the following two regressions:
1: Recognized losses= @ + Monetary incentives + controls
2: Recognized losses= @ + dummy + Monetary incentives + Monetary incentives * dummy + controls
Where the dummy is 1 for the years 2018-2022 and 0 for the years 2014-2017.
Our results are a little hard to interpret since we found a significant negative effect between Monetary incentives and Recognized losses for both regressions. But then we found a significant positive effect between Monetary incentives * dummy and Recognized losses.
Does this mean that when looking at the period 2018-2022 the correlation between Monetary incentives and Recognized losses is positive or does it mean that the negative correlation we found in regression 1 is stronger in the period 2018-2022?
I have ran the following two regressions:
1: Recognized losses= @ + Monetary incentives + controls
2: Recognized losses= @ + dummy + Monetary incentives + Monetary incentives * dummy + controls
Where the dummy is 1 for the years 2018-2022 and 0 for the years 2014-2017.
Our results are a little hard to interpret since we found a significant negative effect between Monetary incentives and Recognized losses for both regressions. But then we found a significant positive effect between Monetary incentives * dummy and Recognized losses.
Does this mean that when looking at the period 2018-2022 the correlation between Monetary incentives and Recognized losses is positive or does it mean that the negative correlation we found in regression 1 is stronger in the period 2018-2022?
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