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  • Predicting binary variable for IV model

    I want to implement an IV model for a dummy endogenous variable following Wooldridge approach (2002) procedure 18.4.1. I have unbalanced panel data.

    In the first stage, I use a bank-level probit model in which I regress a bank's participation on a program (binary variable P) on the instrument (L) and all bank controls from the main regression model. Ithen use the P binary fitted value from the first stage and use this variable as instrument for the final stage.

    P = 0 (925 BANKS)
    P = 1 (8445 BANKS)

    However the prediction ability seems not to be the best for 0 cases (as you can see in the stat classification):
    True --- ----
    Classified D ~D Total
    8332 884 9216
    15 16 31
    Total 8347 900 9247
    Classified + if predicted Pr(D) >= .5
    True D defined as PPP != 0
    Sensitivity Pr( + D) 99.82%
    Specificity Pr( -~D) 1.78%
    Positive predictive value Pr( D +) 90.41%
    Negative predictive value Pr(~D -) 51.61%
    False + rate for true ~D Pr( +~D) 98.22%
    False - rate for true D Pr( - D) 0.18%
    False + rate for classified + Pr(~D +) 9.59%
    False - rate for classified - Pr( D -) 48.39%
    Correctly classified 90.28%
    Looking directly at the data, it does not seem to be different pattern on the values of the predicted probabilities for each binary case:

    P Phat

    0 .3213659
    0 .3529814
    0 .3880158
    0 .3913027
    1 .4174738
    1 .4290477
    1 .429468
    1 .4403449
    0 .4563234
    1 .4711134
    0 .4754532

    ....


    I would like to create a new dummy derived from this predicted probability...

    Could you please indicate me if I'm doing something wrong or any important thing that I'm not considering here?

    Thank you for your time.
    Attached Files
    Last edited by Cristina Ortega; 13 Jan 2023, 10:38.

  • #2
    I think what you are doing is correct, and that you are overthinking it. You cannot control the predictive power in your models, the predictive power is what it is.

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    • #3
      If you go for a standard two stage least squares, this would be equivalent to doing what you do but with a fist stage linear probability model.

      You can compare the IV results across these two approaches.

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