Question: When T=2, given the equivalence of the first difference (FD) and fixed effects (FE) estimators, does it make sense to use clustered standard errors in the FE model?
Say I have panel data of 48 states over two years.
When I run the FD model, I use vce(robust) because I have 1 observation per state:
When I run the FE model, I use vce(cluster state):
But doesn't the equivalence of the FD and FE imply that the standard errors should (theoretically) be the same?
In practice, (1) and (2) result in different values of standard errors.
If I were to run the FE model in a different way, with vce(robust):
then I get the same standard errors as in (1).
This leaves me wondering if clustering standard errors make sense in FE models when T=2.
Bottom line: which regression should I run, (2) or (3)=(1)?
Say I have panel data of 48 states over two years.
When I run the FD model, I use vce(robust) because I have 1 observation per state:
Code:
reg change_y change_x, vce(robust) // (1)
Code:
xtreg y x, fe vce(cluster state) // (2)
In practice, (1) and (2) result in different values of standard errors.
If I were to run the FE model in a different way, with vce(robust):
Code:
reg y x i.state, vce(robust) // (3)
This leaves me wondering if clustering standard errors make sense in FE models when T=2.
Bottom line: which regression should I run, (2) or (3)=(1)?
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