Dear all:
I have a query about interpreting var model when the prob>chi2 is >.05.
If I run a simple var model: var d_x d_y , the prob>chi2 is >.05 i.e. non-significant,
(a) does this mean that I cannot use this model?
(b) The var model I run (shown below), the variable "d_ldjusst" P>chi2 = 0.1516, does that mean I cannot use this model?
(c) Actually I also don't know how to interpret Log likelihood, FPE, RMSE, Det(Sigma_ml), R-sq when using var model, could someone help?
Many thanks!
I have a query about interpreting var model when the prob>chi2 is >.05.
If I run a simple var model: var d_x d_y , the prob>chi2 is >.05 i.e. non-significant,
(a) does this mean that I cannot use this model?
(b) The var model I run (shown below), the variable "d_ldjusst" P>chi2 = 0.1516, does that mean I cannot use this model?
(c) Actually I also don't know how to interpret Log likelihood, FPE, RMSE, Det(Sigma_ml), R-sq when using var model, could someone help?
Many thanks!
Code:
. var d_leg $d_y,lags(1/3) Vector autoregression Sample: 11jan2019 - 29jul2022, but with gaps Number of obs = 119 Log likelihood = 824.5951 AIC = -13.35454 FPE = 3.19e-10 HQIC = -13.07004 Det(Sigma_ml) = 1.92e-10 SBIC = -12.65392 Equation Parms RMSE R-sq chi2 P>chi2 ---------------------------------------------------------------- d_leg 10 .035602 0.2054 30.76516 0.0003 d_lfbx 10 .019752 0.1779 25.74376 0.0022 d_ldjusst 10 .02262 0.1002 13.24964 0.1516 ----------------------------------------------------------------
