I have two dependant variables (Satisfaction and Motivation). Both have the same scale and similar means and they are 0.6 correlated. When I conduct regression, can I merge them as one dependant variable even though i treated them in the correlation matrix separately (are there rules for that?) or do I just do a multi-variate model?
Also, i did a Likelihood ratio test between two models to test which is better. The LRT chi square came back 46 with pvale < 0 .. Does that mean that the second model (the one that had more variables) is better? I can't seem to understand that value or what it means. I am still learning.
One more thing, in order to avoid collinearity of independent variables, is correlation (0.3 - 0.4) okay ? I also conducted VIF and they all came back as below. Is it okay?
Variable VIF 1/VIF
VALUESOCIETY 1.32 0.754852
PSMTOTAL 1.28 0.782972
PAYSATISFIED 1.22 0.821911
Mean VIF 1.27
Thanks alot
Also, i did a Likelihood ratio test between two models to test which is better. The LRT chi square came back 46 with pvale < 0 .. Does that mean that the second model (the one that had more variables) is better? I can't seem to understand that value or what it means. I am still learning.
One more thing, in order to avoid collinearity of independent variables, is correlation (0.3 - 0.4) okay ? I also conducted VIF and they all came back as below. Is it okay?
Variable VIF 1/VIF
VALUESOCIETY 1.32 0.754852
PSMTOTAL 1.28 0.782972
PAYSATISFIED 1.22 0.821911
Mean VIF 1.27
Thanks alot

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