Hi,
Xtabond2 allows us to use exogenous, predetermined and endogenous variables. I have a regression in the form of
where my independent variables are thus all lagged one period. I furthermore use fixed effects. I was wondering if I am allowed to treat xt2_t-1 as strictly exogenous for either difference or system gmm. My thinking is that it is correlated with previous error terms and that it was thus predetermined and should thus automatically be instrumented gmm style in stead of iv style. But I am not sure.
My question is thus: should lagged explanatory variables always be treated as being at least predetermined? Or can they be exogenous with respect to the error idiosyncratic error term?
Xtabond2 allows us to use exogenous, predetermined and endogenous variables. I have a regression in the form of
Code:
y=yt-1+x1_t-1+x2_t-1+i.year
My question is thus: should lagged explanatory variables always be treated as being at least predetermined? Or can they be exogenous with respect to the error idiosyncratic error term?
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