Hello,
As indicated in the title, I'm running a probit regression model, with dependent variables an indicator variable (disclose, =1 if the firm discloses and =0 if the firm doesn't disclose) and independent variable is a continuous variable (leverage). I wonder when calculating the marginal effect for my variable of interest, leverage, should I use margins, dydx(*) atmeans or margins, dydx(*) post? The two gives different results.
If use dydx(*) atmeans
If use dydx(*) post
Moreover, if I want to interpret this result, is it correct to say an increase of 1-unit in leverage decreases the probability of disclosure by 0.239, holding all else constant?
Thanks a lot for any suggestion!
As indicated in the title, I'm running a probit regression model, with dependent variables an indicator variable (disclose, =1 if the firm discloses and =0 if the firm doesn't disclose) and independent variable is a continuous variable (leverage). I wonder when calculating the marginal effect for my variable of interest, leverage, should I use margins, dydx(*) atmeans or margins, dydx(*) post? The two gives different results.
If use dydx(*) atmeans
Code:
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ | Delta-method | dy/dx Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval] -------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- leverage| -.2389898 .070307 3.40 0.001 .1011905 .3767891
Code:
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ | Delta-method | dy/dx Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval] -------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- leverage| -.2820114 .070307 3.40 0.001 .1011905 .3767891
Thanks a lot for any suggestion!
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