Hi to everybody,
Is it correct to conduct the meta-analysis by subgroups even if there are groups that contain only one study? For groups with only one study, obviously "I squared" is impossible to calculate. Thanks in advance to everybody
Is it correct to conduct the meta-analysis by subgroups even if there are groups that contain only one study? For groups with only one study, obviously "I squared" is impossible to calculate. Thanks in advance to everybody
