Dear all,
I am trying to assess the omitted variable bias using the methodology presented by Oster (2016) for a coefficient for oil_ever which is significantly positive in the controlled regression.
I typed the following command in stata :
And stata returned this:
---- Bound Estimate ----
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
delta | -2.97194
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
---- Inputs from Regressions ----
| Coeff. R-Squared
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
Uncontrolled | 0.40441 0.003
Controlled | 1.17795 0.501
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
---- Other Inputs ----
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
R_max | 1.000
Beta | 0.000000
Unr. Controls|
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
I am confused about the negative sign of delta. I understand that this means selection on unobservables should be of the opposite sign that selection on the observables for the effect to be explained away by the bias as explained here Unobservable Selection(Oster 2016) Using psacalc by one of the package's author. However what I am confused about is the following : when \delta is positive, the selection on unobservables should be at least \delta*(selection on observables) for the effect to be 0. When obtaining a negative \delta : for the omitted variable bias to explain away the effect of the treatment variable, does the \delta need to be bigger -2.97 (meaning if selection on unobservables is -1*(selection on observables), the conclusion would be that the effect found is driven by the bias) or does it have to be smaller than -2.97 i.e. bigger in absolute value but negative (in that case, the selection bias on unobservables needs to be pretty important relative to the one on observables and negative, which is quite unlikely, so I would consider my result robust) ?
I hope I am explaining things clearly.
Many thanks in advance for your help.
Anne
I am trying to assess the omitted variable bias using the methodology presented by Oster (2016) for a coefficient for oil_ever which is significantly positive in the controlled regression.
I typed the following command in stata :
psacalc delta oil_ever
---- Bound Estimate ----
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
delta | -2.97194
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
---- Inputs from Regressions ----
| Coeff. R-Squared
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
Uncontrolled | 0.40441 0.003
Controlled | 1.17795 0.501
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
---- Other Inputs ----
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
R_max | 1.000
Beta | 0.000000
Unr. Controls|
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
I am confused about the negative sign of delta. I understand that this means selection on unobservables should be of the opposite sign that selection on the observables for the effect to be explained away by the bias as explained here Unobservable Selection(Oster 2016) Using psacalc by one of the package's author. However what I am confused about is the following : when \delta is positive, the selection on unobservables should be at least \delta*(selection on observables) for the effect to be 0. When obtaining a negative \delta : for the omitted variable bias to explain away the effect of the treatment variable, does the \delta need to be bigger -2.97 (meaning if selection on unobservables is -1*(selection on observables), the conclusion would be that the effect found is driven by the bias) or does it have to be smaller than -2.97 i.e. bigger in absolute value but negative (in that case, the selection bias on unobservables needs to be pretty important relative to the one on observables and negative, which is quite unlikely, so I would consider my result robust) ?
I hope I am explaining things clearly.
Many thanks in advance for your help.
Anne
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