Hi everyone,
When we run a regression (e.g. ordinary least squares, or probit) with an intercept, if our estimate of the intercept has a very large standard error, does it say anything bad about the model? Does it have something to do with the skewness of the data? This is a comment from an otherwise quite helpful reviewer, but I have never paid much attention to the intercept; in particular, I've never heard there's any relationship between the intercept's estimate and the skewness of data. Perhaps - just a wild guess - that it's not significant so the intercept should not be included in the model in the first place?
I'd appreciate any comments or pointers to the literature. Thanks!
When we run a regression (e.g. ordinary least squares, or probit) with an intercept, if our estimate of the intercept has a very large standard error, does it say anything bad about the model? Does it have something to do with the skewness of the data? This is a comment from an otherwise quite helpful reviewer, but I have never paid much attention to the intercept; in particular, I've never heard there's any relationship between the intercept's estimate and the skewness of data. Perhaps - just a wild guess - that it's not significant so the intercept should not be included in the model in the first place?
I'd appreciate any comments or pointers to the literature. Thanks!
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