Dear All, I have been confused by the following for a long time. Consider the data and code
It is clear that regression (1) is the RE estimator and (2) is the FE estimator. However, I often see people doing (3), and wonder if this is correct or wrong (or the theories/assumptions behind the method)? I notice that the estimates of key variables are the same for (2) and (3), but their standard errors are different.
Code:
webuse grunfeld, clear xtset company year // (1) RE xtreg invest mvalue kstock i.year, re robust // (2) FE xtreg invest mvalue kstock i.year, fe robust // (3) xtreg invest mvalue kstock i.company i.year, re robust
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