Hi,
I've been grippling with the interpretation of marginal effects in the presence of factor control variables for a while now and thought I'd ask here.
Basically, I am running a logistic regression and run margins like this
Ethnicity is a factor variable with 5 categories, Disability and Sex have two categories each. Age and age_squared are continuous.
When I now get output that looks like this:
What I now don't know is what the 81 marginal effect means. If I didn't have the three control variables control variables, I would have thought the interpretation is that
But how would I interpret it in light of ethnicity and the age variables I have in my model? The margins command holds them constant, I believe.
Can anyone help me out?
Many thanks
I've been grippling with the interpretation of marginal effects in the presence of factor control variables for a while now and thought I'd ask here.
Basically, I am running a logistic regression and run margins like this
Code:
logit Employment age age_squared b1.Disability b1.Ethnicity b1.Sex b1.Disability#b1.Sex margins b1.Disability#b1.Sex
When I now get output that looks like this:
Marginal Effect | Standard error | ||
Gender/Disability | Male, Non-disabled | 81.0 | 0.5 |
Gender/Disability | Male, Disabled | 42.4 | 1.2 |
Gender/Disability | Female, Non-disabled | 70.3 | 0.5 |
Gender/Disability | Female, Disabled | 35.3 | 1.1 |
non-disabled men are 81% likely to be in employment.
Can anyone help me out?
Many thanks
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