Dear Statalist,
I am currently struggling with the interpretation of the interactionterm Investm#Stage in my analysis.
After running
I got the following output:
The variable stage is value continous variable between 0 and 1 indicating the average investment stage.(The closer to 1, the later the investment stage and vice versa)
Currently, my interpretation looks as follows: My dependent variable, patents, decreases by ~2.6%, with a one unit increase in the average investmentstage.
Is that correct? In case not, does anyone have a suggestion?
Thank you very much.
Best
Ben
I am currently struggling with the interpretation of the interactionterm Investm#Stage in my analysis.
After running
Code:
xtnbreg Patents Revenue RandD Focus Assets c.investmentment##c.stage i.Industry i.Year, re irr
Code:
Random-effects negative binomial regression Number of obs = 472 Group variable: id Number of groups = 70 Random effects u_i ~ Beta Obs per group: min = 2 avg = 6.7 max = 8 Wald chi2(20) = 513.89 Log likelihood = -1990.4528 Prob > chi2 = 0.0000 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Patents | IRR Std. Err. z P>|z| [95% Conf. Interval] -------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- Revenue | 1.001979 .0010452 1.90 0.058 .9999329 1.00403 RandD | 1.004393 .0015713 2.80 0.005 1.001318 1.007477 Focus | 1.077438 .0728899 1.10 0.270 .9436427 1.230204 Assets | .9516789 .5482813 -0.09 0.931 .3076778 2.94364 Investm | 1.020654 .0085935 2.43 0.015 1.00395 1.037637 stage | 1.169925 .1056852 1.74 0.082 .9800871 1.396533 | c.Investm#c.stage| .9740871 .0130466 -1.96 0.050 .9488489 .9999965 | Industry | 2 | .4541281 .2296434 -1.56 0.119 .1685555 1.223528 3 | .9333449 .4720072 -0.14 0.892 .3463986 2.514827 4 | .18199 .0918296 -3.38 0.001 .0676929 .4892736 5 | 2.698813 2.121375 1.26 0.207 .5782216 12.59654 6 | .4562541 .2767226 -1.29 0.196 .1389775 1.497852 7 | .7626905 .6887046 -0.30 0.764 .1299328 4.476904 | Year | 2011 | .9554278 .0670738 -0.65 0.516 .8326089 1.096364 2012 | .9710882 .0667718 -0.43 0.670 .8486533 1.111187 2013 | .7419934 .0566072 -3.91 0.000 .6389417 .8616657 2014 | .6401209 .0495466 -5.76 0.000 .5500186 .7449836 2015 | .5455575 .0459118 -7.20 0.000 .4626014 .6433896 2016 | .3290881 .0308789 -11.84 0.000 .2738056 .3955323 2017 | .0985694 .0133412 -17.12 0.000 .075602 .1285141 | _cons | 10.42205 5.30899 4.60 0.000 3.840177 28.28492 -------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- /ln_r | -.2604066 .1540182 -.5622767 .0414635 /ln_s | .7328332 .2041451 .3327161 1.13295 -------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------- r | .7707381 .1187077 .5699101 1.042335 s | 2.080968 .4248195 1.394751 3.104803 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ LR test vs. pooled: chibar2(01) = 848.68 Prob >= chibar2 = 0.000
Currently, my interpretation looks as follows: My dependent variable, patents, decreases by ~2.6%, with a one unit increase in the average investmentstage.
Is that correct? In case not, does anyone have a suggestion?
Thank you very much.
Best
Ben
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