Hi Statalisters,
I am in the process of looking for a suitable instrument for gender inequality, as I believe it is endogenous when looking at its effect on economic growth. I have been using % of women in parliament as an instrument but what assumptions must it satisfy for me to know it's an appropriate instrument? I ran the following but I'm not sure how to interpret it:
as the lagWIP is significant in the GII regression and the consequent F-Test value is greater than 10, does this indicate the instrument is appropriate? Then how do I also test that women in parliament is not a determinant of my dependent variable, economic growth?
Many thanks
I am in the process of looking for a suitable instrument for gender inequality, as I believe it is endogenous when looking at its effect on economic growth. I have been using % of women in parliament as an instrument but what assumptions must it satisfy for me to know it's an appropriate instrument? I ran the following but I'm not sure how to interpret it:
Code:
reg lagGII lagWIP, robust
Linear regression Number of obs = 1,974
F(1, 1972) = 556.04
Prob > F = 0.0000
R-squared = 0.2684
Root MSE = .17316
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
| Robust
lagGII | Coef. Std. Err. t P>|t| [95% Conf. Interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
lagWIP | -.0095053 .0004031 -23.58 0.000 -.0102959 -.0087148
_cons | .5679747 .0070715 80.32 0.000 .5541063 .5818431
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
. test lagWIP
( 1) lagWIP = 0
F( 1, 1972) = 556.04
Prob > F = 0.0000
Many thanks

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