Apologies in advance that the questions probably seem elementary.
Suppose dealing with panel data (year1-year10) and I have a model that looks like:
Independent variable(y)= α+λ+βx+μ+Ɛ
(where α=constant, λ=a set of (time) dummy variables, βx are some dependent variables*coefficients, μ=individual effect, Ɛ=error term)
Based on the above equation,
1. Difference in commands between pooled OLS and LSDV1?
Is it simply like:
reg y x1 x2 (for pooled ols)
reg y x1 x2 year2-10 (for LSDV1)
2. Is it always better to add -robust- as well? (from what I read, always add -robust- is good because same results under homoscedasticity, but correct results under heteroskedasticity, however I see most regression results people generated do not include -robust-)
3. Difference between ?
xtreg y x1 x2 year2-10, fe
and reg y x1 x2 year2-10
from what I read LSDV1 is already a fixed-effect model, so if Breusch-Pagan test and Hausman test results point me to fixed-effect model, then I could simply use LSDV1 from then on. Is that logically correct? or should I use xtreg y x1 x2 year2-10, fe?
4.I try running -reg y x1 x2 year2-10-, (already dropped year1 to avoid multi-colinearity), the results still omitted year 10 for me, what should I do?
Thank you very much for your time.
Suppose dealing with panel data (year1-year10) and I have a model that looks like:
Independent variable(y)= α+λ+βx+μ+Ɛ
(where α=constant, λ=a set of (time) dummy variables, βx are some dependent variables*coefficients, μ=individual effect, Ɛ=error term)
Based on the above equation,
1. Difference in commands between pooled OLS and LSDV1?
Is it simply like:
reg y x1 x2 (for pooled ols)
reg y x1 x2 year2-10 (for LSDV1)
2. Is it always better to add -robust- as well? (from what I read, always add -robust- is good because same results under homoscedasticity, but correct results under heteroskedasticity, however I see most regression results people generated do not include -robust-)
3. Difference between ?
xtreg y x1 x2 year2-10, fe
and reg y x1 x2 year2-10
from what I read LSDV1 is already a fixed-effect model, so if Breusch-Pagan test and Hausman test results point me to fixed-effect model, then I could simply use LSDV1 from then on. Is that logically correct? or should I use xtreg y x1 x2 year2-10, fe?
4.I try running -reg y x1 x2 year2-10-, (already dropped year1 to avoid multi-colinearity), the results still omitted year 10 for me, what should I do?
Thank you very much for your time.
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