I am interested in estimating the effects of adoption of different medical technologies (MTs) on clinical outcomes. I have data on patient-level clinical outcomes and hospital-level technology adoptions. I am using Stata 14 for windows.
I first use command xtreg to run a difference-in-differences (DID) specification based on my panel data (with year fixed effects and hospital fixed effects), to estimate the changes in clinical outcomes of hospitals after they adopt technologies compared to changes in outcomes of those hospitals that do not adopt any technology. If there is only one technology, then I am done.
However, there are multiple technologies and to simplify, we can classify them to be basic technology and advanced technology. A hospital may adopt none, either or both during our study period and may also change their adoption status from none to either or both. I suspect that there may be some interaction effect between the basic technology and advanced technology. In other words, basic technology makes a difference in clinical outcomes when advanced technology is adopted (or vice versa). I added interaction terms between BasicMT(ht) (a dummy variable which equals to 1 if a basic technology is adopted at hospital h at time t) and AdvancedMT(ht) (a dummy variable which equals to 1 if an advanced technology is adopted at hospital h at time t) to my xtreg regression and Stata14 did produce estimation results.
My question is: in a difference-in-difference setting, are we violating the underlying identifying assumption by interacting two treatment variables? Some studies that use triple-difference estimation examine how the DID effect differ based on exogenous factors such as age or gender, but I have never seen any DID study that estimates the interaction effect of two treatment variables. I would also greatly appreciate any econometric reference that either justify or disprove such practice.
Thank you very much for your time and help in advance!
I first use command xtreg to run a difference-in-differences (DID) specification based on my panel data (with year fixed effects and hospital fixed effects), to estimate the changes in clinical outcomes of hospitals after they adopt technologies compared to changes in outcomes of those hospitals that do not adopt any technology. If there is only one technology, then I am done.
However, there are multiple technologies and to simplify, we can classify them to be basic technology and advanced technology. A hospital may adopt none, either or both during our study period and may also change their adoption status from none to either or both. I suspect that there may be some interaction effect between the basic technology and advanced technology. In other words, basic technology makes a difference in clinical outcomes when advanced technology is adopted (or vice versa). I added interaction terms between BasicMT(ht) (a dummy variable which equals to 1 if a basic technology is adopted at hospital h at time t) and AdvancedMT(ht) (a dummy variable which equals to 1 if an advanced technology is adopted at hospital h at time t) to my xtreg regression and Stata14 did produce estimation results.
My question is: in a difference-in-difference setting, are we violating the underlying identifying assumption by interacting two treatment variables? Some studies that use triple-difference estimation examine how the DID effect differ based on exogenous factors such as age or gender, but I have never seen any DID study that estimates the interaction effect of two treatment variables. I would also greatly appreciate any econometric reference that either justify or disprove such practice.
Thank you very much for your time and help in advance!
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