I have a dataset of individuals across three waves where I consider the effect of unemployment on health for mothers. Initially I examined this relationship in a random effects model as follows:
There is some evidence to suggest that the results may biased due to attrition, and thus that the effects of unemployment on health may be underestimated. To address this issue I would like to utilize Inverse Probability Weighting (IPW). However, it seems almost impossible to estimate a random effects model with weights.
A user suggested that using -mixed- instead of -re- would allow the use of different kinds of weights and estimate random effects.
I decided to re-run my analysis as above but with mixed as below, where I have the mothers id (id) and the geographic area that they live in (current_county_y1):
Could someone please advise me if my linear mixed effects models is correct, i.e. does it match the earlier RE model? In the above everything is measured across all three waves except for education which is only measured in wave 1, I also wasnt sure if where I placed year (which refers to each wave) was ok?
Also would it be acceptable to use this model in my analysis instead of the random effects model from earlier and how does this differ from earlier?
I have read the below sources but I feel I need a more simplified explanation as to how the random effects, fixed effects and mixed effects estimators differ and what is the justification for using a mixed estimator?
For example all of the below suggest that mixed models are characterized as containing both fixed and random effects.:
Multilevel/ Mixed Effects Models: A Brief Overview https://www3.nd.edu/~rwilliam/stats3/Multilevel.pdf
Multilevel Mixed (hierarchical) models fmwww.bc.edu/EC-C/S2013/823/EC823.S2013.nn07.slides.pdf
https://www.stata.com/manuals13/meme.pdf
Does this mean that by running a mixed effects model I no longer need to choose between a random effects or a fixed effects with a Hausman? It sounds like I am effectively getting the best of both worlds and including both effects in one model.
I have found my reading online confusing and really just need a simplified explanation of the above, for example my area is health economics and I'm not even sure if this type of model is acceptable in my discipline.
Kindest regards,
John
Code:
xtreg no_cigs_cons_more0_y psum_unemployed_total_cont_y i.year i.own_education_y i.maritalstatus_y i.medical_card_y i.employment_y i.ord_age_y if has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y5_questionnaire==1 | has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y10_questionnaire==1 | has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y5_questionnaire==1 & has_y10_questionnaire==1, cluster (current_county_y1) re robust
There is some evidence to suggest that the results may biased due to attrition, and thus that the effects of unemployment on health may be underestimated. To address this issue I would like to utilize Inverse Probability Weighting (IPW). However, it seems almost impossible to estimate a random effects model with weights.
A user suggested that using -mixed- instead of -re- would allow the use of different kinds of weights and estimate random effects.
I decided to re-run my analysis as above but with mixed as below, where I have the mothers id (id) and the geographic area that they live in (current_county_y1):
Code:
mixed no_cigs_cons_more0_y psum_unemployed_total_cont_y i.year i.own_education_y i.maritalstatus_y i.medical_card_y i.employment_y i.ord_age_y || id: || current_county_y1: if has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y5_questionnaire==1 | has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y10_questionnaire==1 | has_y0_questionnaire==1 & has_y5_questionnaire==1 & has_y10_questionnaire==1
Could someone please advise me if my linear mixed effects models is correct, i.e. does it match the earlier RE model? In the above everything is measured across all three waves except for education which is only measured in wave 1, I also wasnt sure if where I placed year (which refers to each wave) was ok?
Also would it be acceptable to use this model in my analysis instead of the random effects model from earlier and how does this differ from earlier?
I have read the below sources but I feel I need a more simplified explanation as to how the random effects, fixed effects and mixed effects estimators differ and what is the justification for using a mixed estimator?
For example all of the below suggest that mixed models are characterized as containing both fixed and random effects.:
Multilevel/ Mixed Effects Models: A Brief Overview https://www3.nd.edu/~rwilliam/stats3/Multilevel.pdf
Multilevel Mixed (hierarchical) models fmwww.bc.edu/EC-C/S2013/823/EC823.S2013.nn07.slides.pdf
https://www.stata.com/manuals13/meme.pdf
Does this mean that by running a mixed effects model I no longer need to choose between a random effects or a fixed effects with a Hausman? It sounds like I am effectively getting the best of both worlds and including both effects in one model.
I have found my reading online confusing and really just need a simplified explanation of the above, for example my area is health economics and I'm not even sure if this type of model is acceptable in my discipline.
Kindest regards,
John
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