Dear Statalist,
I have an original regression with an endogenous binary independent variable:
.
I follow Leone, Rock and Willenborg (2007), by conducting the omitted-variable version of Hausman's test. To do this, I create an IV by regressing X1 on all exogenous controls and an instrument (Z):
.
Now I add the fitted values from this regression to my original regression:
What I understand, if the t-value of shat is significant, an endogeneity problem is present. It is, however, the sign of shat is the opposite of the sign of X1. Is this possible? Can I conclude endogeneity is present here?
I have an original regression with an endogenous binary independent variable:
Code:
regress Y1 = X1 + Xi-Xn etc, where X1 is binary and endogeneous and Xi-Xn are exogenous controls
I follow Leone, Rock and Willenborg (2007), by conducting the omitted-variable version of Hausman's test. To do this, I create an IV by regressing X1 on all exogenous controls and an instrument (Z):
Code:
probit X1 Xi-Xn Z, where Z is an instrument predict shat, pr
Now I add the fitted values from this regression to my original regression:
Code:
regress Y1 X1 shat Xi-Xn
Comment