Dear all,
I am currently working on a project related to the sovereign debt crisis related to the Eurozone for the 2000-2017 period with monthly observations
.
Currently, I am trying to detect the existence of a common component in the yields of 12 euro zone countries. Therefore, I used the Principal component analysis, where the first principal component of the twelve yield spreads is used to represent the common euro area risk factor. The first component explains almost 80% of the variance.
However, in related studies, the authors now include the obtained common risk factor in their panel data fixed effects regression. This is in my opinion not possible, as the time fixed effects will capture this variable, as it is constant for all countries over time. However, the authors do find, to my surprise, regression estimates.
My question is, the following:
- Can I include the common euro area risk factor (obtained from the PCA) include in my regression equation (while I include both forms of fixed effects)?
- Alternatively, does any of you have an advice how to distangle the effect of this common euro area risk factor on the sovereign yields?
Thank you in advance.
I am currently working on a project related to the sovereign debt crisis related to the Eurozone for the 2000-2017 period with monthly observations
.
Currently, I am trying to detect the existence of a common component in the yields of 12 euro zone countries. Therefore, I used the Principal component analysis, where the first principal component of the twelve yield spreads is used to represent the common euro area risk factor. The first component explains almost 80% of the variance.
However, in related studies, the authors now include the obtained common risk factor in their panel data fixed effects regression. This is in my opinion not possible, as the time fixed effects will capture this variable, as it is constant for all countries over time. However, the authors do find, to my surprise, regression estimates.
My question is, the following:
- Can I include the common euro area risk factor (obtained from the PCA) include in my regression equation (while I include both forms of fixed effects)?
- Alternatively, does any of you have an advice how to distangle the effect of this common euro area risk factor on the sovereign yields?
Thank you in advance.
Comment