Dear everyone,
I am trying to run a logit regression with a binary dependent variable and several categorical variables as independent variables.
My first question is: Which type of marginal effects are considered optimal / more appropriate when all the independent variables in the logit regression are indicator/categorical variables - Marginal Effects at the Means (MEMs - margins, dydx(*) at means) or Average Marginal Effects (AMEs - margins, dydx(*) )?
I have read that MEMs might not be as good because it predicts marginal effects while keeping the independent variables at their mean values (for example the mean of sex==1 (male) is at 0.59 whereas the mean of sex==0 (female) is 0.41 - which is unrealistic). That being said, is it correct that AMEs are more appropriate when the independent variables are indicator/categorical variables?
My second question is related to estimating the probability that the outcome variable = 1 while setting the independent variables to specific values (following page 6 on: http://www.princeton.edu/~otorres/Margins.pdf ), and pertains to the command below:
I would greatly appreciate any help. Thank you very much in advance!
I am trying to run a logit regression with a binary dependent variable and several categorical variables as independent variables.
logit y i.age_group i.sex i.educ_group i. marital_stat
age_group is divided into 5 groups (15-24; 25-34, 35-44, 45-54, 55 and above)I am having trouble regarding the marginal effects and how I should be interpreting them. There seems to be so many ways of calculating them as well.
sex (1 male, 0 female)
educ_group is divided into 3 groups (no education to primary, secondary, college)
marital_stat is divided into 3 groups (single, married, divorced/widowed)
My first question is: Which type of marginal effects are considered optimal / more appropriate when all the independent variables in the logit regression are indicator/categorical variables - Marginal Effects at the Means (MEMs - margins, dydx(*) at means) or Average Marginal Effects (AMEs - margins, dydx(*) )?
I have read that MEMs might not be as good because it predicts marginal effects while keeping the independent variables at their mean values (for example the mean of sex==1 (male) is at 0.59 whereas the mean of sex==0 (female) is 0.41 - which is unrealistic). That being said, is it correct that AMEs are more appropriate when the independent variables are indicator/categorical variables?
My second question is related to estimating the probability that the outcome variable = 1 while setting the independent variables to specific values (following page 6 on: http://www.princeton.edu/~otorres/Margins.pdf ), and pertains to the command below:
margins age_group, at(sex==1 educ_group==3 marital_stat==1)When I run this command, is Stata calculating the MEs/adjusted predictions for every age group, assuming that everyone in the sample has the following characteristics (sex==1 educ_group==3 marital_stat==1) i.e. forcing everyone in the sample to have these characteristics? Or is Stata calculating the MEs/adjusted predictions but only for the subset of people in the sample with these said characteristics? I hope I have managed to lay out my questions clearly despite my confusion on MEs; I would be happy to try and clarify myself further otherwise.
I would greatly appreciate any help. Thank you very much in advance!
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