Hello,
I'm running a fixed effects model with several fixed effects (firm, country, industry). I have clustered the standard errors by firm.
I ran these commands:
1. reghdfe bda announcement_eligible announcement l_lnassets l_roa, absorb(c indus incorp) vce(cluster c)
2. reghdfe bda announcement_eligible announcement l_lnassets l_roa, absorb(indus incorp) vce(cluster c)
For the second regression all my coefficients become significant (where they were not in the first regression), alone the r-squared goes from 0.8969 for the first regression to 0.4429 for the second regression.
What could be a reason that I should not include firm-specific fixed effects in my regression? And why decreases my r-squared with such a large amount?
Thank you!
I'm running a fixed effects model with several fixed effects (firm, country, industry). I have clustered the standard errors by firm.
I ran these commands:
1. reghdfe bda announcement_eligible announcement l_lnassets l_roa, absorb(c indus incorp) vce(cluster c)
2. reghdfe bda announcement_eligible announcement l_lnassets l_roa, absorb(indus incorp) vce(cluster c)
For the second regression all my coefficients become significant (where they were not in the first regression), alone the r-squared goes from 0.8969 for the first regression to 0.4429 for the second regression.
What could be a reason that I should not include firm-specific fixed effects in my regression? And why decreases my r-squared with such a large amount?
Thank you!
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