Dear all,
I have a set of financial market data sets and I am testing if herding is present in different markets. As a matter of precaution, I have run the regression along with the -i.year- and -robust- commands to detrend my data and make sure they are robust to heteroskedasticity. I have had no issues executing the said commands, but I do have a trouble interpreting the results, I will show my first example below:

Here's my second example:

If I may draw your attention to the 'improved' R-squared, interpreting an increase in the R-squared as an 'improvement' is, of course, shallow, however, the increase is rather significant and persistent for not just the two examples I have shown above but most of my data sets, have I done the right thing by controlling for yearly trend and detrending? Another phenomenon worth pointing out is that the coefficient of 2007 is not only large, but significant in both examples, what might be the implication?
I have a set of financial market data sets and I am testing if herding is present in different markets. As a matter of precaution, I have run the regression along with the -i.year- and -robust- commands to detrend my data and make sure they are robust to heteroskedasticity. I have had no issues executing the said commands, but I do have a trouble interpreting the results, I will show my first example below:
Here's my second example:
If I may draw your attention to the 'improved' R-squared, interpreting an increase in the R-squared as an 'improvement' is, of course, shallow, however, the increase is rather significant and persistent for not just the two examples I have shown above but most of my data sets, have I done the right thing by controlling for yearly trend and detrending? Another phenomenon worth pointing out is that the coefficient of 2007 is not only large, but significant in both examples, what might be the implication?
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