Hi all,
I have binary Y, endogenous X and continuous instrument Z plus controls. I am following Angrist and Pischke's, mostly harmless econometrics and using ivreg2. But I get the coefficient of 5 for X. Is that even possible, how do I interpret it? Should I be using other methods?
Thanks,
Laxman
I have binary Y, endogenous X and continuous instrument Z plus controls. I am following Angrist and Pischke's, mostly harmless econometrics and using ivreg2. But I get the coefficient of 5 for X. Is that even possible, how do I interpret it? Should I be using other methods?
Thanks,
Laxman
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