Dear all,
Assume a situation in which there are only two omitted/unobservable variables. Also, assume they are time-varying and can have either a positive or a negative effect on the dependent variable.
Given the aforementioned assumptions, if time dummies are included in the regression then does this mean that there will not be any omitted variable bias because all the time-varying unobservable variables are controlled? In this case, what are the ways in which omitted variable bias, if any, could arise?
Kind regards.
Assume a situation in which there are only two omitted/unobservable variables. Also, assume they are time-varying and can have either a positive or a negative effect on the dependent variable.
Given the aforementioned assumptions, if time dummies are included in the regression then does this mean that there will not be any omitted variable bias because all the time-varying unobservable variables are controlled? In this case, what are the ways in which omitted variable bias, if any, could arise?
Kind regards.
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