Hi I am investigating the effect of IR derivative usage on firm value, where my focus variable is IR derivative and there also control variables included:
Code:
. regress firm value lnassets IRderivatives 10 bookleverage_w1 roa_w1 cratio_w1 rnd_rev_w1 div_yield_w1
this regression contains all winsorized variables, and I have found that the coefficient on Ir: 0.05, is positive and significant.
Can you use the same regression without the winsorized variables as a check of robustness?
I ran the same regression again without the winsorized variables and I found that while the magnitudes of all the controls changed, the ones that were signficant in the initial winsorized version were still significant and had the same sign, and the there that ir coefficient was now 0.1 and still positive and significant. Can I claim that the IR derivative coefficient results are robust to the effect of outliers. thanks
Code:
. regress firm value lnassets IRderivatives 10 bookleverage_w1 roa_w1 cratio_w1 rnd_rev_w1 div_yield_w1
this regression contains all winsorized variables, and I have found that the coefficient on Ir: 0.05, is positive and significant.
Can you use the same regression without the winsorized variables as a check of robustness?
I ran the same regression again without the winsorized variables and I found that while the magnitudes of all the controls changed, the ones that were signficant in the initial winsorized version were still significant and had the same sign, and the there that ir coefficient was now 0.1 and still positive and significant. Can I claim that the IR derivative coefficient results are robust to the effect of outliers. thanks
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