Hi,
I am working with a fixed-effects estimation on a panel data set for 15 countries.
Suppose the following is the 'central' model: xtreg depvar var1 var2, fe
I then introduce a control variable: xtreg depvar var1 var2 var3, fe
Inclusion of the control variable var3 makes one of my previous explanatory variables, say, var2 insignificant. Therefore I suspect that the possibility that var2 and var3 might be correlated such that the control variable draws the effect of the original explanatory variable. To test the correlation, I run: bysort Country: correl var2 var3
The country-wise correlation coefficients range from 0.7 to 0.85. I am wondering whether this is sufficient evidence to indeed explain why var2 becomes an insignficant predictor upon the inclusion of var3. If not ,advice to run any other tests as a check for correlation to explain loss of significance of var2 would be very helpful. Thank you.
I am working with a fixed-effects estimation on a panel data set for 15 countries.
Suppose the following is the 'central' model: xtreg depvar var1 var2, fe
I then introduce a control variable: xtreg depvar var1 var2 var3, fe
Inclusion of the control variable var3 makes one of my previous explanatory variables, say, var2 insignificant. Therefore I suspect that the possibility that var2 and var3 might be correlated such that the control variable draws the effect of the original explanatory variable. To test the correlation, I run: bysort Country: correl var2 var3
The country-wise correlation coefficients range from 0.7 to 0.85. I am wondering whether this is sufficient evidence to indeed explain why var2 becomes an insignficant predictor upon the inclusion of var3. If not ,advice to run any other tests as a check for correlation to explain loss of significance of var2 would be very helpful. Thank you.
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