So, it seems that the issue is moot, that in practice the interpretation based upon the model's interaction regression coefficient will be the same as that based upon the marginal effect in the probability metric, even when as usually the case there are covariates in the model. That sounds good to me, but it wasn't the impression that I had got earlier. Again, I am not familiar with this area, but I recall seeing (or at least I got the impression of) dire claims that the model's interaction term must not be used to assess effectiveness of an intervention, that you must use the treatment effect estimate in the probability metric, that they could even be opposite in sign.
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