Hello everyone,
I have a -mixed- model regression of embryonic heart rate that includes a number of independent factor variables and a single continuous covariate (pH). If I apply -margins- to the model without the covariate I obtain results that are (almost) identical to those derived from simply calculating the mean group values. That is, my model accurately predicts the measured values when the covariate is not included. This makes sense to me, and makes me happy. It may be the happiness borne of ignorance though.
When I add the covariate, the results change slightly, but not substantially. This is also a good thing, since it means that the pH-adjusted predictions are also close to the measured values.
To quantify the relationship between measured and predicted values, I ran a regression between the two (actually two regressions, with and without the pH covariate).
I have written this up as follows:
This makes sense to me. I have tried to demonstrate that the model accurately represents the measured values when the covariate is not applied, and therefore the values obtained when it is applied are reliable. But by regressing a dependent variable against an independent variable that it's a predictor of, have I simply shown that white is white and black is black?
I have a -mixed- model regression of embryonic heart rate that includes a number of independent factor variables and a single continuous covariate (pH). If I apply -margins- to the model without the covariate I obtain results that are (almost) identical to those derived from simply calculating the mean group values. That is, my model accurately predicts the measured values when the covariate is not included. This makes sense to me, and makes me happy. It may be the happiness borne of ignorance though.
When I add the covariate, the results change slightly, but not substantially. This is also a good thing, since it means that the pH-adjusted predictions are also close to the measured values.
To quantify the relationship between measured and predicted values, I ran a regression between the two (actually two regressions, with and without the pH covariate).
I have written this up as follows:
The predictivity of the mixed regression model, and the influence of within-sample and within-group pH variance, were determined by regressing mean predicted heart rate (HR′), estimated with and without pH as covariate, against mean measured heart rate (HR). Without pH as covariate in the model, the regression between HR′ and HR was close to unity; for GD 11 embryos the coefficient (slope) was 0.9999999 and the constant (intercept) was 0.0000166, while for GD 13 embryos the coefficient and constant were 1 and 3.62×10‑7 respectively (R²=1.0000 in both cases). When pH was included as a covariate in the model, the coefficient and constant for GD 11 embryos were 1.034411 and -6.107584 (R²=0.9956), while for GD 13 embryos they were 0.9935429 and 1.383487 (R²=0.9979). In all cases, the influence of measured pH in the model was small and not statistically significant (p>0.05). Nevertheless, all HR′ reported herein were determined with measured sample pH included as covariate in the prediction model.
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