Hello everybody,
I am currently writing my MSc dissertation. I am writing about the public acceptability of a hypothetical environmental tax on certain foods in the USA and am interested to see
whether earmarking revenue for certain purposes increases acceptance of respondents.
I have collected my data via a survey using Amazon MTurk. Survey respondents were allocated either a set of low tax rates or a set of high tax rates and asked about their acceptance of that tax on a 7 point Likert scale (1 = Strongly opposed to 7= Strongly in favor). I then inform them how much the expected revenue is and that the money will be earmarked. I then present them with some options which they are told to allocate funds to. My idea was that this allows me to see which purposes are most popular and may be particularly conducive to increasing acceptance. After respondents got to allocate the funds as they chose, I ask them again about their acceptance to see if it has changed.
So it is sort of a Pre-test - Treatment - Post-test design, but I have no control group, because I had thought the pre-test could function in a similar way, but now I am not so sure anymore whether it is very valid to do it that way. My supervisor did object to what I did when I presented it to him, so I thought it was okay to do it in that way.
I have my survey results (N=400; N=200 per "tax rate set") and found that when asking about acceptance the second time, after the "earmarking" took place, responses tended to be markedly more acceptive of the tax, i.e. in a higher category of the scale. When I tabulate acceptance before and after earmarking, I can really see a strong difference, both for the low and the high tax group. The high tax group has less responses in the highest categories but there was a shift to higher categories nonetheless). I am aware that respondents might be thinking something like "He wants me to be more in favor now - okay I am going to do this guy that favor" and that this biases the responses the second time. But can the effect really be that strong? Moreover, I am aware that the "Treatment" is not identical or homogenous because everybody gets to choose what they want to use the money for. So the only "homogenous" thing is that earmarking of revenues occurs - which, again, is what I am most interested in - how does acceptance of an unpopular tax in an individual change when the money is earmarked the way they prefer.
I had planned on using an ordinal logistic regression with acceptance as dependent variable and had considered introducing "earmarking" as a binary variable. I had hoped that I could construct that variable from the difference between the pre- and post- values of stated acceptance because the "Treatment" of earmarking is the only thing that has occured in between. Is it possible to do that or would that be nonsensical?
Probably you stats experts are cringing upon reading what I am doing! It's the first time I am doing something like that and I think I underestimated how complicated this would get. I also have relatively little time to do all this so I guess that's why some things are not so well thought through as they could/should have been!
So can I do any meaningful statistical analysis on this or am I basically limited to a simple before-and-after comparison and have to state that no causality can be inferred from this but that further research could look into that blablabla? I guess if needs must I could still change my questionnaire to a RCT style design with only one set of tax rates and two (or three) purposes for earmarking assigned to two (or three) groups and a control group without any earmarking. But of course I would like to avoid that as it will cost me time and money...
Sorry for the long post - I hope you could understand what my problems (basically 1. validity and 2. statistical model selection and variable coding) and can help me. If you need me to provide more information, I can do that.
Best regards,
Philipp
I am currently writing my MSc dissertation. I am writing about the public acceptability of a hypothetical environmental tax on certain foods in the USA and am interested to see
whether earmarking revenue for certain purposes increases acceptance of respondents.
I have collected my data via a survey using Amazon MTurk. Survey respondents were allocated either a set of low tax rates or a set of high tax rates and asked about their acceptance of that tax on a 7 point Likert scale (1 = Strongly opposed to 7= Strongly in favor). I then inform them how much the expected revenue is and that the money will be earmarked. I then present them with some options which they are told to allocate funds to. My idea was that this allows me to see which purposes are most popular and may be particularly conducive to increasing acceptance. After respondents got to allocate the funds as they chose, I ask them again about their acceptance to see if it has changed.
So it is sort of a Pre-test - Treatment - Post-test design, but I have no control group, because I had thought the pre-test could function in a similar way, but now I am not so sure anymore whether it is very valid to do it that way. My supervisor did object to what I did when I presented it to him, so I thought it was okay to do it in that way.
I have my survey results (N=400; N=200 per "tax rate set") and found that when asking about acceptance the second time, after the "earmarking" took place, responses tended to be markedly more acceptive of the tax, i.e. in a higher category of the scale. When I tabulate acceptance before and after earmarking, I can really see a strong difference, both for the low and the high tax group. The high tax group has less responses in the highest categories but there was a shift to higher categories nonetheless). I am aware that respondents might be thinking something like "He wants me to be more in favor now - okay I am going to do this guy that favor" and that this biases the responses the second time. But can the effect really be that strong? Moreover, I am aware that the "Treatment" is not identical or homogenous because everybody gets to choose what they want to use the money for. So the only "homogenous" thing is that earmarking of revenues occurs - which, again, is what I am most interested in - how does acceptance of an unpopular tax in an individual change when the money is earmarked the way they prefer.
I had planned on using an ordinal logistic regression with acceptance as dependent variable and had considered introducing "earmarking" as a binary variable. I had hoped that I could construct that variable from the difference between the pre- and post- values of stated acceptance because the "Treatment" of earmarking is the only thing that has occured in between. Is it possible to do that or would that be nonsensical?
Probably you stats experts are cringing upon reading what I am doing! It's the first time I am doing something like that and I think I underestimated how complicated this would get. I also have relatively little time to do all this so I guess that's why some things are not so well thought through as they could/should have been!
So can I do any meaningful statistical analysis on this or am I basically limited to a simple before-and-after comparison and have to state that no causality can be inferred from this but that further research could look into that blablabla? I guess if needs must I could still change my questionnaire to a RCT style design with only one set of tax rates and two (or three) purposes for earmarking assigned to two (or three) groups and a control group without any earmarking. But of course I would like to avoid that as it will cost me time and money...
Sorry for the long post - I hope you could understand what my problems (basically 1. validity and 2. statistical model selection and variable coding) and can help me. If you need me to provide more information, I can do that.
Best regards,
Philipp
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