Hi everyone,
I'm analyzing some experimental data and I have a hard time making sense of the interpretation of categorical variables in multinomial logit regressions when reporting relative risk ratios (RRR). I was hoping someone with more experience could help out.
Let's assume I have the following:
- three treatments: B, T1, T2
- dependent variable: happiness (dummy)
- one categorical variable (V) representing behavior: 1 (drink), 2 (eat), 3 (sleep)
Let's assume I run mlogit so that B becomes the reference treatment and I use "i.V" command in STATA to get separate coefficients for eat and sleep relative to drink and also use "rrr" to obtain relative risk ratios.
Now let's assume the coefficient of eat in T1 is 1.233*** --> would the interpretation be that when moving from drinking to eating, the likelihood of being happy in that particular treatment (T1) over-proportionally and significantly increases (by 23%) relative to the likelihood to be happy when one moves from drinking to eating in the Baseline? Essentially, does this mean that the likelihood for happiness increases by 23% more than it does increase in the Baseline?
I was reading up some stuff and the sense that I get is that the interpretation of those coefficients is similar to a diff-in-diff interpretation, but I'm not sure.
Thanks,
Peter
I'm analyzing some experimental data and I have a hard time making sense of the interpretation of categorical variables in multinomial logit regressions when reporting relative risk ratios (RRR). I was hoping someone with more experience could help out.
Let's assume I have the following:
- three treatments: B, T1, T2
- dependent variable: happiness (dummy)
- one categorical variable (V) representing behavior: 1 (drink), 2 (eat), 3 (sleep)
Let's assume I run mlogit so that B becomes the reference treatment and I use "i.V" command in STATA to get separate coefficients for eat and sleep relative to drink and also use "rrr" to obtain relative risk ratios.
Now let's assume the coefficient of eat in T1 is 1.233*** --> would the interpretation be that when moving from drinking to eating, the likelihood of being happy in that particular treatment (T1) over-proportionally and significantly increases (by 23%) relative to the likelihood to be happy when one moves from drinking to eating in the Baseline? Essentially, does this mean that the likelihood for happiness increases by 23% more than it does increase in the Baseline?
I was reading up some stuff and the sense that I get is that the interpretation of those coefficients is similar to a diff-in-diff interpretation, but I'm not sure.
Thanks,
Peter
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