Hi, i have a dataset consisting of target prices (future expected stock prices). There are two groups which have published these target prices, professional analysts and economics students. I have run logistic regression analysis to figure out if students are less likely than analysts to meet their target prices.
The Y-variable (TPmet) is equal to one if target price is met and 0 otherwise. I have included an independent variable which is equal to 1 if student and 0 otherwise.
Furthermore i have an independent variable which expresses target price optimism (the distance between target price and todays price, TP/P), which is called TPsize.
My hypothesis is that students miss are less likely to meet their target prices than analysts, and i believe the reason for this is partly because they issue more optimistic target prices.
I therefore also included an interaction term between students and target: Stud*TPsize
I have included a picture of the output.The interaction term is significant, but I'm not quite sure how to interpret it. Can i say that students are less less likely to meet their target prices because they are more optimistic than analysts? Or does it mean that for the same level of target price optimism (same TP/P) students are less likely to meet their target prices?
The Y-variable (TPmet) is equal to one if target price is met and 0 otherwise. I have included an independent variable which is equal to 1 if student and 0 otherwise.
Furthermore i have an independent variable which expresses target price optimism (the distance between target price and todays price, TP/P), which is called TPsize.
My hypothesis is that students miss are less likely to meet their target prices than analysts, and i believe the reason for this is partly because they issue more optimistic target prices.
I therefore also included an interaction term between students and target: Stud*TPsize
I have included a picture of the output.The interaction term is significant, but I'm not quite sure how to interpret it. Can i say that students are less less likely to meet their target prices because they are more optimistic than analysts? Or does it mean that for the same level of target price optimism (same TP/P) students are less likely to meet their target prices?

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