Hi All,
Just a simple question about a logistic regression model when one of the binary exposure groups has zero events/outcomes. Is there anyway to generate a hazard ratio for the exposure variable in this situation or is the idea of a hazard ratio nonsensical in this case because of the perfect prediction of events.
I seem to remember at some point being taught that you can alter the numbers by adding 0.5 to generate hazard ratios. However, this may have been for chi-square tests with a 0 value in a cell rather than logistic regression.
Thanks for your help.
Just a simple question about a logistic regression model when one of the binary exposure groups has zero events/outcomes. Is there anyway to generate a hazard ratio for the exposure variable in this situation or is the idea of a hazard ratio nonsensical in this case because of the perfect prediction of events.
I seem to remember at some point being taught that you can alter the numbers by adding 0.5 to generate hazard ratios. However, this may have been for chi-square tests with a 0 value in a cell rather than logistic regression.
Thanks for your help.
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