Dear all,
I am estimating a count data model for predicting traffic crashes as a function of explanatory variables. While controlling for other explanatory factors, the key focus is on investigating the effect of "variation in a co-variate" (which happens to be an interaction term) on the response outcome. I am seeking expert opinion on whether excluding "main effects" and keeping "interaction effect" in the model is reasonable? Of course, i have followed the discussion over here http://www.statalist.org/forums/forum/general-stata-discussion/general/1374798-how-does-the-interpretation-change-if-i-drop-the-linear-terms,
but i want to clarify my concept with relevance to the data i have.
Consider the data description:
The two models are:
Following Professor. Phil's comment in the above thread, It is seldom desirable to run interactions without including the main effects, because the second specification (Model 2 above) forces the influence of x2 (say sdspeed in my case) to be 0 when x1 (say meanspeed) equals 0 while the first specification (Model 1 above) does not put such a restriction.
Here is my question please: In my case, the interaction term consists of two variables that are sort of derivative of a same variable "overall speed", from which mean speed and standard deviation of speed is calculated and then put into the interaction. So, based on the data i have, there is no case where meanspeed can be zero while sdspeed can be non-zero. Such a case is also not possible conceptually. In other words, if i am understanding the concept correctly, when main-effects are excluded, we are not forcing the coefficient of meanspeed to be zero when sdspeed equals zero (and vice versa), because no such case exist in the data i have. Any guidance in this regard will be highly appreciated.
Below are the descriptive statistics for clarity.

-Behram
I am estimating a count data model for predicting traffic crashes as a function of explanatory variables. While controlling for other explanatory factors, the key focus is on investigating the effect of "variation in a co-variate" (which happens to be an interaction term) on the response outcome. I am seeking expert opinion on whether excluding "main effects" and keeping "interaction effect" in the model is reasonable? Of course, i have followed the discussion over here http://www.statalist.org/forums/forum/general-stata-discussion/general/1374798-how-does-the-interpretation-change-if-i-drop-the-linear-terms,
but i want to clarify my concept with relevance to the data i have.
Consider the data description:
Code:
avecrash //response outcome meanspeed //average speed - main effect sdspeed //sdspeed - main effect covspeed //Interaction term: Coefficient of variation for above two variables i.e. sdspeed/meanspeed
Code:
nbreg avecrash meanspeed sdspeed covspeed // Model 1 nbreg avecrash covspeed // Model 2
Here is my question please: In my case, the interaction term consists of two variables that are sort of derivative of a same variable "overall speed", from which mean speed and standard deviation of speed is calculated and then put into the interaction. So, based on the data i have, there is no case where meanspeed can be zero while sdspeed can be non-zero. Such a case is also not possible conceptually. In other words, if i am understanding the concept correctly, when main-effects are excluded, we are not forcing the coefficient of meanspeed to be zero when sdspeed equals zero (and vice versa), because no such case exist in the data i have. Any guidance in this regard will be highly appreciated.
Below are the descriptive statistics for clarity.
-Behram
Comment