Dear all,
I have read several similar posts about this topic. Still, I havn't found a clear answer. Thus, I hope you can help my with this matter.
For my thesis, I'm using panel data (8years) to analyse the relationship between different kind of ownership types (dummy variables) and firm performance.
These different ownership types are not completly time-constant variables. Nevertheless, they are relatively stable and thus, show little within variation (5%-25%).
As I want to consider unobserved heterogeneity at the firm level, I want to conduct a fixed or random effect regression model.
However, according to Hausman test, I should use a fixed effect model.
As the within variation is relatively small, I am concerned that the model would not be appropriate.
In contrast, the random effect model seems to the wrong choice as well as there seems to be a correlation between individual-specific effects and some of the explanatory variables.
While looking for a solution, I found the approach of Mundlak (1978). However, it seems that this approach is not common in my field of research (Impact of ownership structures on corporate decisions).
Would it maybe a solution to conduct both, the random and fixed effect model, while considering their advantages and disadvantages?
It seems that there is no optimal solution.
Thank you very much for your help.
I have read several similar posts about this topic. Still, I havn't found a clear answer. Thus, I hope you can help my with this matter.
For my thesis, I'm using panel data (8years) to analyse the relationship between different kind of ownership types (dummy variables) and firm performance.
These different ownership types are not completly time-constant variables. Nevertheless, they are relatively stable and thus, show little within variation (5%-25%).
As I want to consider unobserved heterogeneity at the firm level, I want to conduct a fixed or random effect regression model.
However, according to Hausman test, I should use a fixed effect model.
As the within variation is relatively small, I am concerned that the model would not be appropriate.
In contrast, the random effect model seems to the wrong choice as well as there seems to be a correlation between individual-specific effects and some of the explanatory variables.
While looking for a solution, I found the approach of Mundlak (1978). However, it seems that this approach is not common in my field of research (Impact of ownership structures on corporate decisions).
Would it maybe a solution to conduct both, the random and fixed effect model, while considering their advantages and disadvantages?
It seems that there is no optimal solution.
Thank you very much for your help.
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