Hi everyone,
I'm running a simple regression with earnings as my variable of interest. I want to emphasize that the coefficients are different when earnings are positive and negative. The model is like this:
Y=a_1+ a_2NI+ a_3NI×Neg+a_4Neg+CONTROLs (1)
NI represents net income, Neg is an indicator variable that =1 if NI<0 and 0 otherwise
An interesting thing is that I saw a paper with the similar question did a regression test like following:
Y=b_1+ b_2Positive_NI+ b_3Negative_NI+b_4Neg+CONTROLs (2)
Positive_NI=NI if NI>0, and 0 otherwise
Negative_NI=NI if NI<0, and 0 otherwise
Neg is still the indicator variable of loss.
Even though I understand that I can solve my question with Eq. (1), I'm very curious about whether Eq. (2) is statistically correct (Eq.2 can help emphasize my hypothesis that b_2 is negative but b_3 is positive).
Many thanks,
Yiting
I'm running a simple regression with earnings as my variable of interest. I want to emphasize that the coefficients are different when earnings are positive and negative. The model is like this:
Y=a_1+ a_2NI+ a_3NI×Neg+a_4Neg+CONTROLs (1)
NI represents net income, Neg is an indicator variable that =1 if NI<0 and 0 otherwise
An interesting thing is that I saw a paper with the similar question did a regression test like following:
Y=b_1+ b_2Positive_NI+ b_3Negative_NI+b_4Neg+CONTROLs (2)
Positive_NI=NI if NI>0, and 0 otherwise
Negative_NI=NI if NI<0, and 0 otherwise
Neg is still the indicator variable of loss.
Even though I understand that I can solve my question with Eq. (1), I'm very curious about whether Eq. (2) is statistically correct (Eq.2 can help emphasize my hypothesis that b_2 is negative but b_3 is positive).
Many thanks,
Yiting
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